| Questions on Ephesians, Part 3: Who are the "We" in Ephesians 1? |
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| Written by David Lawrence |
| Monday, October 30 2006 00:00 |
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We continue with questions asked by one of our regular readers: “ As to Ephesians 1:3-12 - it has been our understanding that this passage had reference to the believing Jews; then verses 13 and following were inclusive of the Gentiles. However, in view of the fact that the ‘mystery of Christ’ (v.9) and 3:36, and Col. 1:26, was revealed to the Apostles, who in turn, were to ‘make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery’ (3:9), does it not seem that this passage (vs. 3-12) is making reference to the apostles?” The question raised has certainly given pause to any serious Bible student studying this letter. To whom does Paul refer in the lengthy sentence that makes up Ephesians 1:1-12 when he speaks of “we” and “us”, and who are the “you” in verse 13? In reading the passage it seems difficult for me to imagine that Paul would exclude his readers in any way from the blessings he describes. From the outset it would seem that he reaches out to embrace all to allow them to be immersed in the wonder of grace expressed by God through Christ. He addresses his letter to the saints in Ephesus; thus, it seems unlikely that he would immediately enumerate blessings that would not from the outset include them. I base my conclusion on the force of the language in this text. Yes, it is often interpreted that Paul meant Jews first and then included Gentiles in verse 13 (James Montgomery Boice holds this view), but the Ephesian Gentiles would be initially excluded and have to “wait their turn.” True, the gospel went first to the Jews, but it seems unlikely that Paul wants to make such a point to these Ephesian Christians. He usually seeks to diminish the distinction. As far as the verses referring to the apostles, it would seem a little elitist to wax eloquent about what apostles had and others did not – until later. Such a conclusion would not hold up to Paul’s description of the apostolic office that we examined last week in 1 Cor. 4. And how can there be an earlier and a later in God’s election before the foundation of the world? Why then the change from “we” and “us” in verses 1-12 to “you” in verses 13-14? Gordon Clark suggests: “In the previous verses the statements apply to Paul himself as well as to his converts. Here, however, Paul preaches and the people hear. We is impossible, and you is required…These instances of “us” clearly include Paul and all of the Ephesians, both Jew and Greek.” As Clark indicates, Paul preaches to his readers to emphasize the personal point lest they think they might in any way be excluded. He is saying, “Indeed we have all these wonderful blessings in Christ, and be assured that when you trusted in Christ, they were yours too!” |
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